Congress has no delegated authority or power to prescribe or inflict punishments for violations of state or local laws

   For that is left to the common and statute law of the States, is it NOT? Why YES, I do believe it is. That being the FACT, why are our local and state governments allowing this usurpation of 'power' by the federal government?

   A. Could it be because they are under duress from the federal sweat-hog, that if they don't comply they'll be pried off from suckling on the federal teat?

   B. Or, could it be because those local and state governments were also forbidden from infringing upon our right?

   C. Or, perhaps it could be in order to COMBINE TOGETHER in a conspiracy to deprive We The People of our right?

   The very right that would be absolutely vital in putting down those very governments in the event they became [even more] tyrannical? Why YES, I do believe that A, B or C is indeed the case....

   And I also believe that Mr. Hamilton would concur with that assessment:

   “If the representatives of the people betray their constituents, there is then no resource left but in the exertion of that original right of self-defense which is paramount to all positive forms of government; and which, against the usurpation of the national rulers, may be exerted with an infinitely better prospect of success, than against those of the rulers of an individual state. In a single state, if the persons intrusted with supreme power become usurpers, the different parcels, subdivisions, or districts, of which it consists, having no distinct government in each, can take no regular measures for defence. The citizens must rush tumultuously to arms, without concert, without system, without resource; except in their courage and despair.”–Alexander Hamilton, The Federalist Papers No. 28, New York Packet. Tuesday, December 25, 1787.